In August, 1794, a New York judge manumitted two of his slaves in
recognition of past services rendered.  One month later, he sold the
daughter of these two slaves to them for 17 pounds, the approximate
market value at the time for a slave.

We do not know whether or not actual money passed between the parents
and the judge.
We may assume that the daughter was not of legal age and did not reach
legal age until at least the year 1800.
There is no record of the parents manumitting the child.

The question is this: What would have been the legal ramifications if
the judge had manumitted the slave child concurrently with her parents?
Were there social or legal consequences of manumission at the time that
would have adversely affected the child? If the child had been
manumitted, could the child have been taken from the parents by
strangers and re-sold into slavery?

Any assistance on these questions (preferably with documentation of
sources) wins eternal gratitude from the undersigned,

Tom Perrin